Exam Code: 1z0-062
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c Administration

Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min File Version: 8.0

QUESTION 1:

Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
undo_management string AUTO
undo_retentioninteger 1200
undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following: 1.The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3. The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically. How would you accomplish this?

A. by granting a secure application role to the user
B. by implementing Database Resource Manager
C. by using Oracle Label Security options
D. by assigning a profile to the user

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database.
Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING ‘HQ’;
B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CXJRRENT_USER USING HQ’ S
C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following specifications:
– Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.

–The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
–The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night. Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D. a default database configuration

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database?

A. An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B. An extent can span multiple segments,
C. Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7:

Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database structures?

A. A segment cannot span data files.
B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.
D. The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8:

Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes.
Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A. connecting by using an external naming method
B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service”
D. connecting by using a directory naming method
E. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 10:

Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?

A. partitioning the table
B. creating an invisible index
C. updating the table by using an update statement
D. creating a public synonym
E. creating a view

Correct Answer: DE

Explanation/Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tables013.htm#ADMIN01507

QUESTION 11:

Which three statements are true about a job chain?

A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12:

The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table: ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS

On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?

A. Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B. Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13:

Which three factors influence the optimizer’s choice of an execution plan?

A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 14:

Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed. SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length,
Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits, cpu_wait_time FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAMEACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS

CPU_WAIT_TIME
OLTP ORDER ENTRY1029690 4676709
OTHES GROUPS 0 05982366408960425
SYS_GROUP 1 02420704 91419540
DS.S_QUERIES4245946603004 55700
Which two statements are true?

A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 15:

Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16:

Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled. NameNull?Type
PROD_IDNOT NULL NUMBER CUST_IDNOT NULL NUMBER TIME_IDNOT NULL DATE CHANNEL_IDNOT NULL NUMBER PROMO_IDNOT NULL NUMBER
QUANT I TY S OL DNOT NULL NUMBER (10, 2) AMOUNT SOLDNOT NULL NUMBER (10, 2)
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark. What should you ensure before the start of the operation?

A. Row movement is enabled.
B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17:

Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a single-instance Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle Database 12c?

A. shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded
B. executing the catctl.pl script to run the upgrade processes in parallel
C. running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
D. copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18:

Your database is open and the listener LISTNENER is up. You issue the command:
LSNRCTL> RELOAD
What is the effect of reload on sessions that were originally established by listener?

A. Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.
B. Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the listener completes the re-registration of the database instance and service handlers.
C. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.
D. All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19:

Which statement is true regarding the startup of a database instance?

A. The instance does not start up normally and requires manual media recovery after a shutdown using the abort option.
B. Uncommitted transactions are rolled back during the startup of the database instance after a shutdown using the immediate option.
C. There is no difference in the underlying mechanics of the startup whether the database is shut down by using the immediate option or the abort option.
D. Media recovery is required when the database is shut down by using either the immediate option or the abort option.
E. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20:

Examine the memory-related parameters set in the SPFILE of an Oracle database:
memory_max_target—6G memory_target=5G pga_aggregate_target=500M sga_max_size=0 sga_target=0
Which statement is true?

A. Only SGA components are sized automatically.
B. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.
C. The size of the PGA cannot grow automatically beyond 500 MB.
D. The value of the MEMORY_TARGET parameter cannot be changed dynamically.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21:

Which two statements are true about extents?

A. Blocks belonging to an extent can be spread across multiple data files.
B. Data blocks in an extent are logically contiguous but can be non-contiguous on disk.
C. The blocks of a newly allocated extent, although free, may have been used before.
D. Data blocks in an extent are automatically reclaimed for use by other objects in a tablespaee when all the rows in a table are deleted.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 22:

You execute the commands: SQL>CREATE USER sidney IDENTIFIED BY out_standing1
DEFAULT TABLESPACE users QUOTA 10M ON users TEMPORARY TABLESPACE temp ACCOUNT UNLOCK;
SQL> GRANT CREATE SESSION TO Sidney;
Which two statements are true?

A. The create user command fails if any role with the name Sidney exists in the database.
B. The user sidney can connect to the database instance but cannot perform sort operations because no space quota is specified for the temp tablespace.
C. The user sidney is created but cannot connect to the database instance because no profile is default.
D. The user sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create objects in the users tablespace.
E. The user sidney is created and authenticated by the operating system.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 23:

Examine the query and its output:
SQL> SELECT REASON, metric_value FROM dba_outstanding_alerts; REASONMETRIC_VALUE
Tablespace [TEST] is [28 perce 28.125 nt] full Metrics “Current Logons Count”29
Metrics “Database Time Spent99.0375405 waiting (%)” is at 99.03754 for event class “Application” db_recovery_file_dest_size of97 4294967296 bytes is 97.298 used and has 116228096 remaining bytes available. After 30 minutes, you execute the same query:
SQL> SELECT reason, metric_value FROM dba_outstanding_alerets; REASONMETRIC_VALUE
Tablespace [TEST] is [28 percs 28.125 nt] full
What might have caused three of the alerts to disappear?

A. The threshold alerts were cleared and transferred to d0A_alert_history.
B. An Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot was taken before the execution of the second
C. An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADOM) report was generated before the execution of the second query.
D. The database instance was restarted before the execution of the second query.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24:

Which two statements are true?

A. A role cannot be assigned external authentication.
B. A role can be granted to other roles.
C. A role can contain both system and object privileges.
D. The predefined resource role includes the unlimited_tablespace privilege.
E. All roles are owned by the sys user.
F. The predefined connect role is always automatically granted to all new users at the time of their creation.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 25:

Identify three valid options for adding a pluggable database (PDB) to an existing multitenant container database (CDB).

A. Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB using the files from the SEED.
B. Use the CREATE DATABASE . . . ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to provision a PDB by copying file from the SEED.
C. Use the DBMS_PDB package to clone an existing PDB.
D. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 12c non-CDB database into an existing CDB.
E. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 11 g Release 2 (11.2.0.3.0) non-CDB database into an existing CDB.

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation/Reference:
Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a pluggable database (PDB).

This statement enables you to perform the following tasks:
*(A) Create a PDB by using the seed as a template
Use the create_pdb_from_seed clause to create a PDB by using the seed in the multitenant container database (CDB) as a template. The files associated with the seed are copied to a new location and the copied files are then associated with the new PDB.
*(C) Create a PDB by cloning an existing PDB
Use the create_pdb_clone clause to create a PDB by copying an existing PDB (the source PDB) and then plugging the copy into the CDB. The files associated with the source PDB are copied to a new location and the copied files are associated with the new PDB. This operation is called cloning a PDB.
The source PDB can be plugged in or unplugged. If plugged in, then the source PDB can be in the same CDB or in a remote CDB. If the source PDB is in a remote CDB, then a database link is used to connect to the remote CDB and copy the files.
*Create a PDB by plugging an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB
Use the create_pdb_from_xml clause to plug an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB, using an XML metadata file.

QUESTION 26:

Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries: Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis. You want to analyze some of the queries for an application that are cached in the library cache.
What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?

A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.
B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository Monitor (ADDM).
C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on the workload captured in the STS.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
*SQL Access Advisor is primarily responsible for making schema modification recommendations, such as adding or dropping indexes and materializedviews. SQL Tuning Advisor makes other types of recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles and restructuring SQL statements.
*The query optimizer can also help you tune SQL statements. By using SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor, you can invoke the queryoptimizer in advisory mode to examine a SQL statement or set of statements and determine how to improve their efficiency. SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor can make various recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles, restructuring SQL statements, creating additional indexes or materialized views, and refreshing optimizer statistics.
Note:
*Decision support system (DSS) workload
*The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQLareas and control structures such as locks and library cache handles.

QUESTION 27:

The following parameter are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:
OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=FALSE OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE
You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:
1.Set the evolve task parameters.
2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
3. Implement the recommendations in the task by using the DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function. 4.Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
5.Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function. Identify the correct sequence of steps:

A. 2, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5

Correct Answer: B

2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function creates an advisor task to prepare the plan evolution of one or more plans for a specified SQL statement. The input parameters can be a SQL handle, plan name or a list of plan names, time limit, task name, and description.
1. Set the evolve task parameters.
SET_EVOLVE_TASK_PARAMETER
This function updates the value of an evolve task parameter. In this release, the only valid parameter is TIME_LIMIT. 4.Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function executes an evolution task. The input parameters can be the task name, execution name, and execution description. If not specified, the advisor generates the name, which is returned by the function.
3: IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK
This function implements all recommendations for an evolve task. Essentially, this function is equivalent to using ACCEPT_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE for all recommended plans. Input parameters include task name, plan name, owner name, and execution name.
5.Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function displays the results of an evolve task as a CLOB. Input parameters include the task name and section of the report to include.

QUESTION 28:

In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list managed segments.
On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks. Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?

A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
*Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way of managing space within a segment. It completely eliminates anyneed to specify and tune the pctused,freelists, and freelist groups storage parameters for schema objects created in the tablespace. If any of these attributes are specified, they are ignored.
*Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a replacement for traditional freelists management which used one-waylinked-lists to manage free blocks with tables and indexes. ASSM is commonly called “bitmap freelists” because that is how Oracle implement the internal data structures for free block management.
Note:
*Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data buffer pool (db_cache_size, etc.).
*The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention tuning, adding freelists (or ASSM), and addingmissing indexes.

QUESTION 29:

Examine this command:
SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’, ‘PUBLISH’, ‘false’);
Which three statements are true about the effect of this command?

A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.

Correct Answer: CDE

Explanation/Reference:
*SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure
This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.
*Example:
Using Pending Statistics
Assume many modifications have been made to the employees table since the last time statistics were gathered. To ensure that the cost-based optimizer is still picking the best plan, statistics should be gathered once again; however, the user is concerned that new statistics will cause the optimizer to choose bad plans when the current ones are acceptable. The user can do the following:
EXEC DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘hr’, ’employees’, ‘PUBLISH’, ‘false’);
By setting the employees tables publish preference to FALSE, any statistics gather from now on will not be automatically published. The newly gathered statistics will be marked as pending.

QUESTION 30:

Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle database (source):

Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command?
A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user on the source database with the DATAPUMP_EXD_FULL_DATABASE role.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same platform with the same endianness.
E. The path of data files on the target database must be the same as that on the source database.
F. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.

Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation/Reference:
In this case we have run the impdp without performing any conversion if endian format is different then we have to first perform conversion.

QUESTION 31:

Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database?

A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 32:

Examine the current value for the following parameters in your database instance:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 700M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M LOG_BUFFER = 200M
You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;
Which statement is true?

A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.
D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_MAX_SIZE.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
*The SGA_TARGET parameter can be dynamically increased up to the value specified for the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter, and it can also be reduced.
*Example:
For example, suppose you have an environment with the following configuration:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 512M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, the value of SGA_TARGET can be resized up to 1024M and can also be reduced until one or more of the automatically sized components reaches its minimum size. The exact value depends on environmental factors such as the number of CPUs on the system. However, the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE remains fixed at all times at 128M
*DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE
Size of cache for 8K buffers
*For example, consider this configuration:
SGA_TARGET = 512M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, increasing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16 M to 144M means that the 16M is taken away from the automatically sized components. Likewise, reducing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16M to 112M means that the 16M is given to the automatically sized components.

QUESTION 33:

Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.
B. The PDB must be dosed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation/Reference:
B, not A: The PDB must be closed before unplugging it.
D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference. E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB’s datafiles can remain in place.

QUESTION 34:

Examine the following command:
CREATE TABLE (prod_id number(4), Prod_name varchar2 (20), Category_id number(30),
Quantity_on_hand number (3) INVISIBLE);
Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?

A. The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible column in the output.
B. The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.
C. Referential integrity constraint cannot be set on the invisible column.
D. The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.
E. A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation/Reference:
AB: You can make individual table columns invisible. Any generic access of a table does not show the invisible columns in the table. For example, the following operations do not display invisible columns in the output:
*SELECT * FROM statements in SQL
*DESCRIBE commands in SQL*Plus
*%ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL* Describes in Oracle Call Interface (OCI) Incorrect:
Not D: You can make invisible columns visible.
You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and you can later alter the table to make the same column visible.

QUESTION 35:

You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT. You issue the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS; SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM; SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;
For which database users is the audit policy now active?
A. All users except SYS
B. All users except SCOTT
C. All users except sys and SCOTT
D. All users except sys, system, and SCOTT

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
If you run multiple AUDIT statements on the same unified audit policy but specify different EXCEPT users, then Oracle Database uses the last exception user list, not any of the users from the preceding lists. This means the effect of the earlier AUDIT POLICY … EXCEPT statements are overridden by the latest AUDIT POLICY … EXCEPT statement.
Note:

*The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default, this policy is not enabled.
*You can use the keyword ALL to audit all actions. The following example shows how to audit all actions on the HR.EMPLOYEES table, except actionsby user pmulligan.
Example Auditing All Actions on a Table
CREATE AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol ACTIONS ALL ON HR.EMPLOYEES;
AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol EXCEPT pmulligan;

QUESTION 36:

On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema by issuing the following command: $> sqlldr hr/ hr@pdb table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command?

A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that establish session characteristics.

QUESTION 37:

After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:

After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero. What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation/Reference:
About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value
You can alter the default displayed values for full Data Redaction polices. By default, 0 is the redacted value when Oracle Database performs full redaction (DBMS_REDACT.FULL) on a column of the NUMBER data type. If you want to change it to another value (for example, 7), then you can run the DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure to modify this value. The modification applies to all of the Data Redaction policies in the current database instance. After you modify a value, you must restart the database for it to take effect.
Note:
*The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queriesissued by low-privileged users or an application.
*UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES Procedure
This procedure modifies the default displayed values for a Data Redaction policy for full redaction.
*After you create the Data Redaction policy, it is automatically enabled and ready to redact data.
*Oracle Data Redaction enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or applications. You can redactcolumn data by using one of the following methods:
/ Full redaction.
/ Partial redaction.
/ Regular expressions.
/ Random redaction. / No redaction.

QUESTION 38:

You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the sales schema for at least three years. Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.
Which two must you do to track the transactions?

A. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking.

Correct Answer: DE

Explanation/Reference:
E: By default, flashback archiving is disabled for any table. You can enable flashback archiving for a table if you have the FLASHBACK ARCHIVE object privilege on the Flashback Data Archive that you want to use for that table. D: Creating a Flashback Data Archive
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive with the CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE statement, specifying the following:
Name of the Flashback Data Archive
Name of the first tablespace of the Flashback Data Archive
(Optional) Maximum amount of space that the Flashback Data Archive can use in the first tablespace
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive named fla2 that uses tablespace tbs2, whose data will be retained for two years: CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla2 TABLESPACE tbs2 RETENTION 2 YEAR;

QUESTION 39:

You are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types, and the table’s indexes, to another tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the application?
A. Oracle Data Pump.
B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the indexes.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
*Oracle Database provides a mechanism to make table structure modifications without significantly affecting the availability of the table. Themechanism is called online table redefinition. Redefining tables online provides a substantial increase in availability compared to traditional methods of redefining tables.
*To redefine a table online:
Choose the redefinition method: by key or by rowid
*By key—Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo-primary keys are unique keys with all component columnshaving NOT NULL constraints. For this method, the versions of the tables before and after redefinition should have the same primary key columns. This is the preferred and default method of redefinition.
*By rowid—Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named M_ROW$$ is added to the post-redefined version of thetable. It is recommended that this column be dropped or marked as unused after the redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to 10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of redefinition automatically sets this column unused. You can then use the ALTER TABLE … DROP UNUSED COLUMNS statement to drop it.
You cannot use this method on index-organized tables. Note:
*When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in this manner enables you to change storagecharacteristics or move to a new tablespace. Rebuilding an index based on an existing data source removes intra-block fragmentation. Compared to dropping the index and using the CREATE INDEX statement, re-creating an existing index offers better performance.
Incorrect:
Not E: Edition-based redefinition enables you to upgrade the database component of an application while it is in use, thereby minimizing or eliminating down time.

QUESTION 40:

To implement Automatic Management (AMM), you set the following parameters:

When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the following error message: SQL > startup
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings, see alert log for more information. Identify the reason the instance failed to start.

A. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D. The SGA_MAX_SIZE and SGA_TARGET parameter values are not equal.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Example:
SQL> startup force
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings
ORA-00848: STATISTICS_LEVEL cannot be set to BASIC with SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET

QUESTION 41:

What are two benefits of installing Grid Infrastructure software for a stand-alone server before installing and creating an Oracle database?

A. Effectively implements role separation
B. Enables you to take advantage of Oracle Managed Files.
C. Automatically registers the database with Oracle Restart.
D. Helps you to easily upgrade the database from a prior release.
E. Enables the Installation of Grid Infrastructure files on block or raw devices.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
C: To use Oracle ASM or Oracle Restart, you must first install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server before you install and create the database. Otherwise, you must manually register the database with Oracle Restart.
Desupport of Block and Raw Devices
With the release of Oracle Database 11g release 2 (11.2) and Oracle RAC 11g release 2 (11.2), using Database Configuration Assistant or the installer to store Oracle Clusterware or Oracle Database files directly on block or raw devices is not supported.
If you intend to upgrade an existing Oracle RAC database, or an Oracle RAC database with Oracle ASM instances, then you can use an existing raw or block device partition, and perform a rolling upgrade of your existing installation. Performing a new installation using block or raw devices is not allowed.

QUESTION 42:

Identify two correct statements about multitenant architectures.

A. Multitenant architecture can be deployed only in a Real Application Clusters (RAC) configuration.
B. Multiple pluggable databases (PDBs) share certain multitenant container database (CDB) resources.
C. Multiple CDBs share certain PDB resources.
D. Multiple non-RAC CDB instances can mount the same PDB as long as they are on the same server.
E. Patches are always applied at the CDB level.
F. A PDB can have a private undo tablespace.

Correct Answer: BE

Explanation/Reference:
B: Using 12c Resource manager you will be able control CPU, Exadata I/O, sessions and parallel servers. A new 12c CDB Resource Manager Plan will use so- called “Shares” (resource allocations) to specify how CPU is distributed between PDBs. A CDB Resource Manager Plan also can use “utilization limits” to limit the CPU usage for a PDB. With a default directive, you do not need to modify the resource plan for each PDB plug and unplug.
E: New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades.
The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its many pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant container database at a different Oracle Database software version.
Incorrect:
Not A:
*The Oracle RAC documentation describes special considerations for a CDB in an Oracle RAC environment.
*Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers reduce IT costs by simplifying consolidation,provisioning, upgrades, and more.
It is supported by a new architecture that allows a container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully complements other options, including Oracle Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing database can be simply adopted, with no change, as a pluggable database; and no changes are needed in the other tiers of the application.
Not D: You can unplug a PDB from one CDB and plug it into a different CDB without altering your schemas or applications. A PDB can be plugged into only one CDB at a time.
not F:
*UNDO tablespace can NOT be local and stays on the CDB level.
*Redo and undo go hand in hand, and so the CDB as a whole has a single undo tablespace per RAC instance.

QUESTION 43:

You upgrade your Oracle database in a multiprocessor environment. As a recommended you execute the following script: SQL > @utlrp.sql Which two actions does the script perform?

A. Parallel compilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
B. Sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
D. Sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
F. Sequential recompilation of Java code

Correct Answer: CE

Explanation/Reference:
utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql
The utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql scripts are provided by Oracle to recompile all invalid objects in the database. They are typically run after major database changes such as upgrades or patches. They are located in the $ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin directory and provide a wrapper on the UTL_RECOMP package. The utlrp.sql script simply calls the utlprp.sql script with a command line parameter of “0”. The utlprp.sql accepts a single integer parameter that indicates the level of parallelism as follows.
0- The level of parallelism is derived based on the CPU_COUNT parameter. 1- The recompilation is run serially, one object at a time.
N – The recompilation is run in parallel with “N” number of threads.
Both scripts must be run as the SYS user, or another user with SYSDBA, to work correctly.

QUESTION 44:

Which two statements are true concerning dropping a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. The PDB must be open in read-only mode.
B. The PDB must be in mount state.
C. The PDB must be unplugged.
D. The PDB data files are always removed from disk.
E. A dropped PDB can never be plugged back into a multitenant container database (CDB).

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation/Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/cdb_plug.htm#ADMIN13658

QUESTION 45:

You notice a high number of waits for the db file scattered read and db file sequential read events in the recent Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report. After further investigation, you find that queries are performing too many full table scans and indexes are not being used even though the filter columns are indexed.
Identify three possible reasons for this.

A. Missing or stale histogram statistics
B. Undersized shared pool
C. High clustering factor for the indexes
D. High value for the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter
E. Oversized buffer cache

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation/Reference:
D: DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT is one of the parameters you can use to minimize I/O during table scans. It specifies the maximum number of blocks read in one I/O operation during a sequential scan. The total number of I/Os needed to perform a full table scan depends on such factors as the size of the table, the multiblock read count, and whether parallel execution is being utilized for the operation.

QUESTION 46:

Which three features work together, to allow a SQL statement to have different cursors for the same statement based on different selectivity ranges?

A. Bind Variable Peeking
B. SQL Plan Baselines
C. Adaptive Cursor Sharing
D. Bind variable used in a SQL statement
E. Literals in a SQL statement

Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation/Reference:
* In bind variable peeking (also known as bind peeking), the optimizer looks at the value in a bind variable when the database performs a hard parse of a statement.
When a query uses literals, the optimizer can use the literal values to find the best plan. However, when a query uses bind variables, the optimizer must select the best plan without the presence of literals in the SQL text. This task can be extremely difficult. By peeking at bind values the optimizer can determine the selectivity of a WHERE clause condition as if literals had been used, thereby improving the plan.
C: Oracle 11g/12g uses Adaptive Cursor Sharing to solve this problem by allowing the server to compare the effectiveness of execution plans between executions with different bind variable values. If it notices suboptimal plans, it allows certain bind variable values, or ranges of values, to use alternate execution plans for the same statement. This functionality requires no additional configuration.

QUESTION 47:

You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this performance difference. Which method or feature should you use?

A. Compare Period ADDM report
B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
The awrddrpt.sql report is the Automated Workload Repository Compare Period Report. The awrddrpt.sql script is located in the $ORACLE_HOME/ rdbms/admin directory.
Incorrect:
Not A: Compare Period ADDM
Use this report to perform a high-level comparison of one workload replay to its capture or to another replay of the same capture. Only workload replays that contain at least 5 minutes of database time can be compared using this report.

QUESTION 48:

You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for the CUSTOMERS table in the SH schema. Examine the following steps:
1. Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS (‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual statement.
2. Execute the DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE (null, ‘SH’, 500) procedure. 3.Execute the required queries on the CUSTOMERS table.
4.Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE (‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual statement.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 4, 1

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Step 1 (2). Seed column usage
Oracle must observe a representative workload, in order to determine the appropriate column groups. Using the new procedure DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE, you tell Oracle how long it should observe the workload.
Step 2: (3) You don’t need to execute all of the queries in your work during this window. You can simply run explain plan for some of your longer running queries to ensure column group information is recorded for these queries. Step 3. (1) Create the column groups
At this point you can get Oracle to automatically create the column groups for each of the tables based on the usage information captured during the monitoring window. You simply have to call the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function for each table.This function requires just two arguments, the schema name and the table name. From then on, statistics will be maintained for each column group whenever statistics are gathered on the table.
Note:
*DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE reports column usage information and records all the SQL operations the database has processed for a givenobject.
*The Oracle SQL optimizer has always been ignorant of the implied relationships between data columns within the same table. While the optimizer hastraditionally analyzed the distribution of values within a column, he does not collect value-based relationships between columns.
*Creating extended statisticsHere are the steps to create extended statistics for related table columns withdbms_stats.created_extended_stats:
1 – The first step is to create column histograms for the related columns.2 – Next, we run dbms_stats.create_extended_stats to relate the columns together. Unlike a traditional procedure that is invoked via an execute (“exec”) statement, Oracle extended statistics are created via a select statement.

QUESTION 49:

Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)?

A. All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B. The AWR data is stored in memory and in the database.
C. The snapshots collected by AWR are used by the self-tuning components in the database
D. AWR computes time model statistics based on time usage for activities, which are displayed in the v$SYS time model and V$SESS_TIME_MODEL views.
E. AWR contains system wide tracing and logging information.

Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation/Reference:
*A fundamental aspect of the workload repository is that it collects and persists database performance data in a manner that enables historicalperformance analysis.
The mechanism for this is the AWR snapshot. On a periodic basis, AWR takes a “snapshot” of the current statistic values stored in the database instance’s memory and persists them to its tables residing in the SYSAUX tablespace.
*AWR is primarily designed to provide input to higherlevel components such as automatic tuning algorithms and advisors, but can also provide a wealthof information for the manual tuning process.

QUESTION 50:

You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDBs). Examine the query and its output:

Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege to the password file?

A. Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM.
B. Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
C. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE argument set to No.
D. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments set to Yes.
E. Re-create the password file in the Oracle Database 12c format.

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation/Reference:
*orapwd
/ You can create a database password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD. The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
orapwd FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={y|n}] [ASM={y|n}] [DBUNIQUENAME=dbname] [FORMAT={12|legacy}] [SYSBACKUP={y|n}] [SYSDG={y|n}] [SYSKM={y|n}] [DELETE={y|n}] [INPUT_FILE=input-fname] force – whether to overwrite existing file (optional),*v$PWFILE_users
/ 12c: V$PWFILE_USERS lists all users in the password file, and indicates whether the user has been granted the SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSASM, SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges.
/ 10c: sts users who have been granted SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges as derived from the password file. ColumnDatatypeDescription
USERNAMEVARCHAR2(30)The name of the user that is contained in the password file SYSDBAVARCHAR2(5)If TRUE, the user can connect with SYSDBA privileges SYSOPERVARCHAR2(5)If TRUE, the user can connect with SYSOPER privileges
Incorrect:
not E: The format of the v$PWFILE_users file is already in 12c format.

QUESTION 51:

An application accesses a small lookup table frequently. You notice that the required data blocks are getting aged out of the default buffer cache. How would you guarantee that the blocks for the table never age out?

A. Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
B. Increase the database buffer cache size.
C. Configure the RECYCLE buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
D. Configure Automata Shared Memory Management.
E. Configure Automatic Memory Management-

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Schema objects are referenced with varying usage patterns; therefore, their cache behavior may be quite different. Multiple buffer pools enable you to address these differences. You can use a KEEP buffer pool to maintain objects in the buffer cache and a RECYCLE buffer pool to prevent objects from consuming unnecessary space in the cache. When an object is allocated to a cache, all blocks from that object are placed in that cache. Oracle maintains a DEFAULT buffer pool for objects that have not been assigned to one of the buffer pools.

QUESTION 52:

You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privilege. The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode.
There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and PDBs.
What happens alter issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?

A. The shutdown proceeds immediately. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs are either committed or rolled hack.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
C. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either committed or rolled back.
D. The statement results in an error because there are open PDBs.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
*SHUTDOWN [ABORT | IMMEDIATE | NORMAL | TRANSACTIONAL [LOCAL]] Shuts down a currently running Oracle Database instance, optionally closing and dismounting a database. If the current database is a pluggable database, only the pluggable database is closed. The consolidated instance continues to run.
Shutdown commands that wait for current calls to complete or users to disconnect such as SHUTDOWN NORMAL and SHUTDOWN
TRANSACTIONAL have a time limit that the SHUTDOWN command will wait. If all events blocking the shutdown have not occurred within the time limit, the shutdown command cancels with the following message:
ORA-01013: user requested cancel of current operation
*If logged into a CDB, shutdown closes the CDB instance.
To shutdown a CDB or non CDB, you must be connected to the CDB or non CDB instance that you want to close, and then enter SHUTDOWN
Database closed.
Database dismounted.
Oracle instance shut down.
To shutdown a PDB, you must log into the PDB to issue the SHUTDOWN command. SHUTDOWN
Pluggable Database closed.
Note:
*Prerequisites for PDB Shutdown
When the current container is a pluggable database (PDB), the SHUTDOWN command can only be used if:
The current user has SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSBACKUP, or SYSDG system privilege. The privilege is either commonly granted or locally granted in the PDB.
The current user exercises the privilege using AS SYSDBA, AS SYSOPER, AS SYSBACKUP, or AS SYSDG at connect time. To close a PDB, the PDB must be open.

QUESTION 53:

You are planning the creation of a new multitenant container database (CDB) and want to store the ROOT and SEED container data files in separate directories. You plan to create the database using SQL statements.
Which three techniques can you use to achieve this?

A. Use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).
B. Specify the SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause.
C. Specify the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT initialization parameter.
D. Specify the DB_FILE_NAMECONVERT initialization parameter.
E. Specify all files in the CREATE DATABASE statement without using Oracle managed Files (OMF).

Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation/Reference:
You must specify the names and locations of the seed’s files in one of the following ways:
*(A) Oracle Managed Files
*(B) The SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT Clause
*(C) The PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT Initialization Parameter

QUESTION 54:

You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB). The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:
–Version: Oracle Database 11gRelease 2 (11.2.0.2.0) 64-bit
–Character set: AL32UTF8
–National character set: AL16UTF16
–O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:
–Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
–Character Set: AL32UTF8
–National character set: AL16UTF16– O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?

A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export/import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
* Overview, example:
-Log into ncdb12c as sys
-Get the database in a consistent state by shutting it down cleanly.

-Open the database in read only mode
-Run DBMS_PDB.DESCRIBE to create an XML file describing the database.
-Shut down ncdb12c
-Connect to target CDB (CDB2)
-Check whether non-cdb (NCDB12c) can be plugged into CDB(CDB2) – Plug-in Non-CDB (NCDB12c) as PDB(NCDB12c) into target CDB(CDB2).
-Access the PDB and run the noncdb_to_pdb.sql script.- Open the new PDB in read/write mode.
*You can easily plug an Oracle Database 12c non-CDB into a CDB. Just create a PDB manifest file for the non-CDB, and then use the manifest file tocreate a cloned PDB in the CDB.
*Note that to plug in a non-CDB database into a CDB, the non-CDB database needs to be of version 12c as well. So existing 11g databases will need tobe upgraded to 12c before they can be part of a 12c CDB.

QUESTION 55:

Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) application. The application is undergoing some major schema changes, such as addition of new indexes and materialized views. You want to check the impact of these changes on workload performance.
What should you use to achieve this?

A. Database replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository compare reports

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
You can use the SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the SQL performance impact of any type of system change. Examples of common system changes include: Database upgrades
Configuration changes to the operating system, hardware, or database Database initialization parameter changes
Schema changes, such as adding new indexes or materialized views Gathering optimizer statistics
SQL tuning actions, such as creating SQL profiles http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/intro.htm#CNCPT961

QUESTION 56:

An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges. A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:
THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE
Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has been opened in read only mode?

A. You can conned as a common user by using the connect statement.
B. You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F. You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.

Correct Answer: CDEF

Explanation/Reference:
*The choice of threading model is dictated by the THREADED_EXECUTION initialization parameter. THREADED_EXECUTION=FALSE : The default value causes Oracle to run using the multiprocess model. THREADED_EXECUTION=TRUE : Oracle runs with the multithreaded model.
*OS Authentication is not supported with the multithreaded model.
*THREADED_EXECUTION
When this initialization parameter is set to TRUE, which enables the multithreaded Oracle model, operating system authentication is not supported. Attempts to connect to the database using operating system authentication (for example, CONNECT / AS SYSDBA or CONNECT / ) when this initialization parameter is set to TRUE receive an ORA-01031″insufficient privileges” error.
F: The new SET CONTAINER statement within a call back function:
The advantage of SET CONTAINER is that the pool does not have to create a new connection to a PDB, if there is an exisitng connection to a different PDB. The pool can use the existing connection, and through SET CONTAINER, can connect to the desired PDB. This can be done using: ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER= This avoids the need to create a new connection from scratch.

QUESTION 57:

Examine the following query output:

You issue the following command to import tables into the hr schema:
$ > impdp hr/hr directory = dumpdir dumpfile = hr_new.dmp schemas=hr TRANSFORM=DISABLE_ARCHIVE_LOGGING: Y Which statement is true?

A. All database operations performed by the impdp command are logged.
B. Only CREATE INDEX and CREATE TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
C. Only CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
D. None of the operations against the master table used by Oracle Data Pump to coordinate its activities are logged.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
Oracle Data Pump disable redo logging when loading data into tables and when creating indexes.
The new TRANSFORM option introduced in data pumps import provides the flexibility to turn off the redo generation for the objects during the course of import. The Master Table is used to track the detailed progress information of a Data Pump job.
The Master Table is created in the schema of the current user running the Pump Dump export or import, and it keeps tracks of lots of detailed information.

QUESTION 58:

You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know which change has made this performance difference. You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to further investigation.
Which three findings would you get from the report?

A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C. It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
E. It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F. It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
Keyword: shows the difference.
*Full ADDM analysis across two AWR snapshot periods Detects causes, measure effects, then correlates them Causes: workload changes, configuration changes
Effects: regressed SQL, reach resource limits (CPU, I/O, memory, interconnect) Makes actionable recommendations along with quantified impact
*Identify what changed
/ Configuration changes, workload changes
*Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has graduallydegraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR Compare Periods report shows the difference (ABE) between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.

QUESTION 59:

Examine the parameter for your database instance:

You generated the execution plan for the following query in the plan table and noticed that the nested loop join was done. After actual execution of the query, you notice that the hash join was done in the execution plan:

Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.

A. The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.
B. The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
C. The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query.
D. The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.

Correct Answer: B
* optimizer_dynamic_sampling
OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls both when the database gathers dynamic statistics, and the size of the sample that the optimizer uses to gather the statistics.
Range of values0 to 11

QUESTION 60:

Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management?

A. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
B. The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
C. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
D. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform better than the existing accepted plans.
E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.

Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation/Reference:
With adaptive SQL plan management, DBAs no longer have to manually run the verification or evolve process for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning is in COMPREHENSIVE mode, it runs a verification or evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans during the nightly maintenance window. If the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing accepted plan (or plans) in the SQL plan baseline, then the plan is automatically accepted and becomes usable by the optimizer. After the verification is complete, a persistent report is generated detailing how the nonaccepted plan performs compared to the accepted plan performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their own evolve job at end time.
Note:
*The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of the plan.
*Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan decision for a statement until execution time. Theoptimizer instruments its chosen plan (the default plan) with statistics collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates differ greatly from the actual number of rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a significant difference, then the plan or a portion of it will be automatically adapted to avoid suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL statement.

QUESTION 61:

You create a new pluggable database, HR_PDB, from the seed database. Which three tablespaces are created by default in HR_PDB?

A. SYSTEM
B. SYSAUX
C. EXAMPLE
D. UNDO
E. TEMP
F. USERS

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation/Reference:
*A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces.It can also contains other user created tablespaces in it.
*Oracle Database creates both the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces as part of every database.
*tablespace_datafile_clauses
Use these clauses to specify attributes for all data files comprising the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces in the seed PDB. Incorrect:
Not D: a PDB can not have an undo tablespace. Instead, it uses the undo tablespace belonging to the CDB. Note:
*Example:
CONN pdb_admin@pdb1
SELECT tablespace_name FROM dba_tablespaces; TABLESPACE_NAME
SYSTEM SYSAUX TEMP USERS

QUESTION 62:

Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files?

A. The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.
B. Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size
C. An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
D. Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
E. Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
A: Variable size extents enable support for larger ASM datafiles, reduce SGA memory requirements for very large databases (A), and improve performance for file create and open operations.
C: You don’t have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the appropriate extent size.

Note:
*The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that are stored on individual disks within disk groups. Eachextent resides on an individual disk. Extents consist of one or more allocation units (AU). To accommodate increasingly larger files, ASM uses variable size extents.
*The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending on the file size. The initial extent size is equal to theallocation unit size and it increases by a factor of 8 and 64 at predefined thresholds. This feature is automatic for newly created and resized datafiles when the disk group compatibility attributes are set to Oracle Release 11 or higher.

QUESTION 63:

You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema.
The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege. What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?

A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
B. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
E. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
RMAN tablespace point-in-time recovery (TSPITR).
Recovery Manager (RMAN) TSPITR enables quick recovery of one or more tablespaces in a database to an earlier time without affecting the rest of the tablespaces and objects in the database.
Fully Automated (the default)
In this mode, RMAN manages the entire TSPITR process including the auxiliary instance. You specify the tablespaces of the recovery set, an auxiliary destination, the target time, and you allow RMAN to manage all other aspects of TSPITR.
The default mode is recommended unless you specifically need more control over the location of recovery set files after TSPITR, auxiliary set files during TSPITR, channel settings and parameters or some other aspect of your auxiliary instance.

QUESTION 64:

In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), the HR user executes the following commands to create and grant privileges on a procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE create_test_v (v_emp_id NUMBER, v_ename VARCHAR2, v_SALARY NUMBER, v_dept_id NUMBER) BEGIN INSERT INTO hr.test VALUES (V_emp_id, V_ename, V_salary, V_dept_id);
END;
/
GRANT EXECUTE ON CREATE_TEST TO john, jim, smith, king;
How can you prevent users having the EXECUTE privilege on the CREATE_TEST procedure from inserting values into tables on which they do not have any privileges?

A. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with definer’s rights.
B. Grant the EXECUTE privilege to users with GRANT OPTION on the CREATE_TEST procedure.
C. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with invoker’s rights.
D. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure as part of a package and grant users the EXECUTE privilege the package.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
If a program unit does not need to be executed with the escalated privileges of the definer, you should specify that the program unit executes with the privileges of the caller, also known as the invoker. Invoker’s rights can mitigate the risk of SQL injection.
Incorrect:
Not A: By default, stored procedures and SQL methods execute with the privileges of their owner, not their current user. Such definer-rights subprograms are bound to the schema in which they reside. not B: Using the GRANT option, a user can grant an Object privilege to another user or to PUBLIC.

QUESTION 65:

You created a new database using the “create database” statement without specifying the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE” clause. What are two effects of not using the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE database” clause?

A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.
B. The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
C. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in.

Correct Answer: AD

Explanation/Reference:
A (not B,not E): The CREATE DATABASE … ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
D: You can create a PDB by plugging in a Non-CDB as a PDB. The following graphic depicts the options for creating a PDB:
Incorrect:
Not E: For the duration of its existence, a database is either a CDB or a non-CDB. You cannot transform a non-CDB into a CDB or vice versa. You must define a database as a CDB at creation, and then create PDBs within this CDB.

QUESTION 66:

What is the effect of specifying the “ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE” clause in a “CREATE DATABASE” statement?

A. It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
C. It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
D. It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
*The CREATE DATABASE … ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLEDATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
Along with the root (CDB$ROOT), Oracle Database automatically creates a seed PDB (PDB$SEED). The following graphic shows a newly created CDB:

*Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation.

QUESTION 67:

You have installed two 64G flash devices to support the Database Smart Flash Cache feature on your database server that is running on Oracle Linux. You have set the DB_SMART_FLASH_FILE parameter:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE= ‘/dev/flash_device_1 ‘,’ /dev/flash_device_2’ How should the DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE be configured to use both devices?

A. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G.
B. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G, 64G
C. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 128G.
D. DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE is automatically configured by the instance at startup.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
* Smart Flash Cache concept is not new in Oracle 12C – DB Smart Flash Cache in Oracle 11g.
In this release Oracle has made changes related to both initialization parameters used by DB Smart Flash cache. Now you can define many files|devices and its sizes for “Database Smart Flash Cache” area. In previous releases only one file|device could be defined.
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = /dev/sda, /dev/sdb, /dev/sdc DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 32G, 32G, 64G
So above settings defines 3 devices which will be in use by “DB Smart Flash Cache”
/dev/sda – size 32G
/dev/sdb – size 32G
/dev/sdc – size 64G
New view V$FLASHFILESTAT – it’s used to determine the cumulative latency and read counts of each file|device and compute the average latency

QUESTION 68:

Examine the following parameters for a database instance: MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0
MEMORY_TARGET=0 SGA_TARGET=0 PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=500m
Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)?

A. LOG_BUFFER
B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE

Correct Answer: AEF

Explanation/Reference:
Manually Sized SGA Components that Use SGA_TARGET Space SGA Component, Initialization Parameter
/ The log buffer LOG_BUFFER
/ The keep and recycle buffer caches DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE
/ Nonstandard block size buffer caches DB_nK_CACHE_SIZE
Note:
*In addition to setting SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value, you must set to zero all initialization parameters listed in the table below to enable fullautomatic tuning of the automatically sized SGA components.
*Table, Automatically Sized SGA Components and Corresponding Parameters

QUESTION 69:

Examine the contents of SQL loader control file:

Which three statements are true regarding the SQL* Loader operation performed using the control file?

A. An EMP table is created if a table does not exist. Otherwise, if the EMP table is appended with the loaded data.
B. The SQL* Loader data file myfile1.dat has the column names for the EMP table.
C. The SQL* Loader operation fails because no record terminators are specified.
D. Field names should be the first line in the both the SQL* Loader data files.
E. The SQL* Loader operation assumes that the file must be a stream record format file with the normal carriage return string as the record terminator.

Correct Answer: ABE

A: The APPEND keyword tells SQL*Loader to preserve any preexisting data in the table. Other options allow you to delete preexisting data, or to fail with an error if the table is not empty to begin with.
B (not D):
Note:
*SQL*Loader-00210: first data file is empty, cannot process the FIELD NAMES record
Cause: The data file listed in the next message was empty. Therefore, the FIELD NAMES FIRST FILE directive could not be processed. Action: Check the listed data file and fix it. Then retry the operation
E:
*A comma-separated values (CSV) (also sometimes called character-separated values, because the separator character does not have to be acomma) file stores tabular data (numbers and text) in plain-text form. Plain text means that the file is a sequence of characters, with no data that has to be interpreted instead, as binary numbers. A CSV file consists of any number of records, separated by line breaks of some kind; each record consists of fields, separated by some other character or string, most commonly a literal comma or tab. Usually, all records have an identical sequence of fields. * Fields with embedded commas must be quoted.
Example:
1997,Ford,E350,”Super, luxurious truck” Note:
*SQL*Loader is a bulk loader utility used for moving data from external files into the Oracle database.

QUESTION 70:

In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C
# # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs. You execute the following command from the root container: SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN; What is the result?

A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
REVOKE ..FROM
If the current container is the root:
/ Specify CONTAINER = CURRENT to revoke a locally granted system privilege, object privilege, or role from a common user or common role. The privilege or role is revoked from the user or role only in the root. This clause does not revoke privileges granted with CONTAINER = ALL.
/ Specify CONTAINER = ALL to revoke a commonly granted system privilege, object privilege on a common object, or role from a common user or common role. The privilege or role is revoked from the user or role across the entire CDB. This clause can revoke only a privilege or role granted with CONTAINER = ALL from the specified common user or common role. This clause does not revoke privileges granted locally with CONTAINER = CURRENT. However, any locally granted privileges that depend on the commonly granted privilege being revoked are also revoked. If you omit this clause, then CONTAINER = CURRENT is the default.

QUESTION 71:

Which two statements are true concerning the Resource Manager plans for individual pluggable databases (PDB plans) in a multitenant container database (CDB)?

A. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then all sessions for that PDB are treated to an equal degree of the resource share of that PDB.
B. In a PDB plan, subplans may be used with up to eight consumer groups.
C. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups across all PDBs in the CDB.
D. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then the PDB share in the CDB plan is dynamically calculated.
E. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups based on the shares provided to the PDB in the CDB plan and the shares provided to the consumer groups in the PDB plan.

Correct Answer: AE

Explanation/Reference:
A: Setting a PDB resource plan is optional. If not specified, all sessions within the PDB are treated equally.
In a non-CDB database, workloads within a database are managed with resource plans.
In a PDB, workloads are also managed with resource plans, also called PDB resource plans. The functionality is similar except for the following differences:
/ Non-CDB Database Multi-level resource plans
Up to 32 consumer groups Subplans
/ PDB Database
Single-level resource plans only Up to 8 consumer groups
(not B) No subplans

QUESTION 72:

You use a recovery catalog for maintaining your database backups. You execute the following command:
$rman TARGET / CATALOG rman / cat@catdb
RMAN > BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
Which two statements are true?

A. Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired.
B. Checks are performed for physical corruptions.
C. Checks are performed for logical corruptions.
D. Checks are performed to confirm whether all database files exist in correct locations
E. Backup sets containing both data files and archive logs are created.

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation/Reference:
B (not C): You can validate that all database files and archived redo logs can be backed up by running a command as follows: RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
This form of the command would check for physical corruption. To check for logical corruption, RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE CHECK LOGICAL DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
D: You can use the VALIDATE keyword of the BACKUP command to do the following:
Check datafiles for physical and logical corruption
Confirm that all database files exist and are in the correct locations. Note:
You can use the VALIDATE option of the BACKUP command to verify that database files exist and are in the correct locations (D), and have no physical or logical corruptions that would prevent RMAN from creating backups of them. When performing a BACKUP…VALIDATE, RMAN reads the files to be backed up in their entirety, as it would during a real backup. It does not, however, actually produce any backup sets or image copies (Not A, not E).

QUESTION 73:

Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture?

A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.

Correct Answer: BDG

Explanation/Reference:
B:
*A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces.It can also contains other user created tablespaces in it.
*There is one default temporary tablespace for the entire CDB. However, you can create additional temporary tablespaces in individual PDBs.D:
*There is a single redo log and a single control file for an entire CDB
*A log switch is the point at which the database stops writing to one redo log file and begins writing to another. Normally, a log switch occurs when thecurrent redo log file is completely filled and writing must continue to the next redo log file.
G: instance recovery
The automatic application of redo log records to uncommitted data blocks when an database instance is restarted after a failure. Incorrect:
Not A:
*There is one set of background processes shared by the root and all PDBs. –
*High consolidation density. The many pluggable databases in a single container database share its memory and background processes, letting youoperate many more pluggable databases on a particular platform than you can single databases that use the old architecture.
Not C: There is a separate SYSAUX tablespace for the root and for each PDB. Not F: There is a separate SYSTEM tablespace for the root and for each PDB. –

QUESTION 74:

You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long. The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job’s elapsed time?

A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job’s job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation/Reference:
B: Job priorities are used only to prioritize among jobs in the same class. Note: Group jobs for prioritization
Within the same job class, you can assign priority values of 1-5 to individual jobs so that if two jobs in the class are scheduled to start at the same time, the one with the higher priority takes precedence. This ensures that you do not have a less important job preventing the timely completion of a more important one.
C: Set resource allocation for member jobs
Job classes provide the link between the Database Resource Manager and the Scheduler, because each job class can specify a resource consumer group as an attribute. Member jobs then belong to the specified consumer group and are assigned resources according to settings in the current resource plan.

QUESTION 75:

You plan to migrate your database from a File system to Automata Storage Management (ASM) on same platform. Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task?

A. RMAN CONVERT command
B. Data Pump Export and import
C. Conventional Export and Import
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE . . . command of RMAN
E. DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace

Correct Answer: AD

Explanation/Reference:
A:
1. Get the list of all datafiles.
Note: RMAN Backup of ASM Storage
There is often a need to move the files from the file system to the ASM storage and vice versa. This may come in handy when one of the file systems is corrupted by some means and then the file may need to be moved to the other file system.
D: Migrating a Database into ASM
*To take advantage of Automatic Storage Management with an existing database you must migrate that database into ASM. This migration isperformed using Recovery Manager (RMAN) even if you are not using RMAN for your primary backup and recovery strategy.
*Example:
Back up your database files as copies to the ASM disk group.
BACKUP AS COPY INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE FORMAT ‘+DISK’ TAG ‘ORA_ASM_MIGRATION’;

QUESTION 76:

You run a script that completes successfully using SQL*Plus that performs these actions:
1.Creates a multitenant container database (CDB) 2.Plugs in three pluggable databases (PDBs) 3.Shuts down the CDB instance
4.Starts up the CDB instance using STARTUP OPEN READ WRITEWhich two statements are true about the outcome after running the script?

A. The seed will be in mount state.
B. The seed will be opened read-only.
C. The seed will be opened read/write.
D. The other PDBs will be in mount state.
E. The other PDBs will be opened read-only.
F. The PDBs will be opened read/write.

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation/Reference:
B: The seed is always read-only.
D: Pluggable databases can be started and stopped using SQL*Plus commands or the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.

QUESTION 77:

You execute the following piece of code with appropriate privileges:

User SCOTT has been granted the CREATE SESSION privilege and the MGR role.
Which two statements are true when a session logged in as SCOTT queries the SAL column in the view and the table?

A. Data is redacted for the EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.
B. Data is redacted for EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
C. Data is never redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column.
D. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
E. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
Note:
*DBMS_REDACT.FULL completely redacts the column data.
*DBMS_REDACT.NONE applies no redaction on the column data. Use this function for development testing purposes. LOB columns are not supported.* The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low- privileged users or an application.
*If you create a view chain (that is, a view based on another view), then the Data Redaction policy also applies throughout this view chain. The policiesremain in effect all of the way up through this view chain, but if another policy is created for one of these views, then for the columns affected in the subsequent views, this new policy takes precedence.

QUESTION 78:

Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the following command: 1snrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?

A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
The listener is used when the connection is established. The immediate impact of stopping the listener will be that no new session can be established from a remote host. Existing sessions are not compromised.

QUESTION 79:

Which three statements are true about using flashback database in a multitenant container database (CDB)?

A. The root container can be flashed back without flashing back the pluggable databases (PDBs).
B. To enable flashback database, the CDB must be mounted.
C. Individual PDBs can be flashed back without flashing back the entire CDB.
D. The DB_FLASHBACK RETENTION_TARGET parameter must be set to enable flashback of the CDB.
E. A CDB can be flashed back specifying the desired target point in time or an SCN, but not a restore point.

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 80:

You execute the following PL/SQL:

Which two statements are true?

A. Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for SELECT statements only when a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
B. FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
C. FGA is enabled for all DML operations by JIM on the PRODUCTS.PRICE column.
D. FGA is enabled for the PRICE column of the PRODUCTS table and the SQL statements is captured in the FGA audit trial.

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation/Reference:
DBMS_FGA.add_policy
* The DBMS_FGA package provides fine-grained security functions. * ADD_POLICY Procedure This procedure creates an audit policy using the supplied predicate as the audit condition.
Incorrect:
Not C: object_schema

The schema of the object to be audited. (If NULL, the current log-on user schema is assumed.)

QUESTION 81:

You execute the following commands to audit database activities:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRIAL=DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE;
SQL > AUDIT SELECT TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?

A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command, and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Note:
*BY SESSION
In earlier releases, BY SESSION caused the database to write a single record for all SQL statements or operations of the same type executed on the same schema objects in the same session. Beginning with this release (11g) of Oracle Database, both BY SESSION and BY ACCESS cause Oracle Database to write one audit record for each audited statement and operation. * BY ACCESS
Specify BY ACCESS if you want Oracle Database to write one record for each audited statement and operation. Note:
If you specify either a SQL statement shortcut or a system privilege that audits a data definition language (DDL) statement, then the database always audits by access. In all other cases, the database honors the BY SESSION or BY ACCESS specification.
*For each audited operation, Oracle Database produces an audit record containing thisinformation:
/ The user performing the operation / The type of operation
/ The object involved in the operation / The date and time of the operation

QUESTION 82:

You support Oracle Database 12c Oracle Database 11g, and Oracle Database log on the same server. All databases of all versions use Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
Which three statements are true about the ASM disk group compatibility attributes that are set for a disk group?

A. The ASM compatibility attribute controls the format of the disk group metadata.
B. RDBMS compatibility together with the database version determines whether a database Instance can mount the ASM disk group.
C. The RDBMS compatibility setting allows only databases set to the same version as the compatibility value, to mount the ASM disk group.
D. The ASM compatibility attribute determines some of the ASM features that may be used by the Oracle disk group.
E. The ADVM compatibility attribute determines the ACFS features that may be used by the Oracle 10 g database.

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
AD: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute determines the minimum software version for an Oracle ASM instance that can use the disk group. This setting also affects the format of the data structures for the Oracle ASM metadata on the disk.
B: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute determines the minimum COMPATIBLE database initialization parameter setting for any database instance that is allowed to use the disk group. Before advancing the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute, ensure that the values for the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for all of the databases that access the disk group are set to at least the value of the new setting for
COMPATIBLE.RDBMS.
For example, if the COMPATIBLE initialization parameters of the databases are set to either 11.1 or 11.2, then COMPATIBLE.RDBMS can be set to any value between 10.1 and 11.1 inclusively.
Not E:
/The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute determines whether the disk group can contain Oracle ASM volumes. The value must be set to 11.2 or higher. Before setting this attribute, the COMPATIBLE.ASM value must be 11.2 or higher. Also, the Oracle ADVM volume drivers must be loaded in the supported environment.
/ You can create an Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager (Oracle ADVM) volume in a disk group. The volume device associated with the dynamic volume can then be used to host an Oracle ACFS file system.
The compatibility parameters COMPATIBLE.ASM and COMPATIBLE.ADVM must be set to 11.2 or higher for the disk group. Note:
* The disk group attributes that determine compatibility are COMPATIBLE.ASM, COMPATIBLE.RDBMS. and COMPATIBLE.ADVM. The
COMPATIBLE.ASM and COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute settings determine the minimum Oracle Database software version numbers that a system can use for Oracle ASM and the database instance types respectively. For example, if the Oracle ASM compatibility setting is 11.2, and RDBMS compatibility is set to 11.1, then the Oracle ASM software version must be at least 11.2, and the Oracle Database client software version must be at least 11.1. The COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute determines whether the Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager feature can create an volume in a disk group.

QUESTION 83:

To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters: DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = ‘/dev/flash_device_1’ , ‘/dev/flash_device_2’ DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G What is the result when you start up the database instance?

A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
B. One 64G flash cache file will be used.
C. Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
D. Two 32G flash cache files will be used.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 84:

You executed this command to create a password file:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 10 ignorecase = N Which two statements are true about the password file?

A. It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the SYSOPER role.
B. It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER operating system group.
C. It contains usernames and passwords of database users who are members of the OSDBA operating system group.
D. It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA role.
E. It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted the SYSDBA role.

Correct Answer: AD

Explanation/Reference:
* You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD. * Adding Users to a Password File
When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user’s name and privilege information are added to the password file. If the server does not have an EXCLUSIVE password file (that is, if the initialization parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or SHARED, or the password file is missing), Oracle Database issues an error if you attempt to grant these privileges.
A user’s name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two privileges. If you revoke both of these privileges, Oracle Database removes the user from the password file. * The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}] [NOSYSDBA={Y|N}] * IGNORECASE
If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored when comparing the password that the user supplies during login with the password in the password file.

QUESTION 85:

Identify three valid methods of opening, pluggable databases (PDBs).

A. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from the root
B. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from a PDB
C. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the seed
D. ALTER DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the root
E. ALTER DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB
F. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from another PDB
G. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB

Correct Answer: AEG

Explanation/Reference:
E: You can perform all ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE tasks by connecting to a PDB and running the corresponding ALTER DATABASE statement. This functionality is provided to maintain backward compatibility for applications that have been migrated to a CDB environment.
AG: When you issue an ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN statement, READ WRITE is the default unless a PDB being opened belongs to a CDB that is used as a physical standby database, in which case READ ONLY is the default.
You can specify which PDBs to modify in the following ways:
List one or more PDBs.
Specify ALL to modify all of the PDBs.
Specify ALL EXCEPT to modify all of the PDBs, except for the PDBs listed.

QUESTION 86:

You administer an online transaction processing (OLTP) system whose database is stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM) and whose disk group use normal redundancy.
One of the ASM disks goes offline, and is then dropped because it was not brought online before DISK_REPAIR_TIME elapsed. When the disk is replaced and added back to the disk group, the ensuing rebalance operation is too slow.
Which two recommendations should you make to speed up the rebalance operation if this type of failure happens again?

A. Increase the value of the ASM_POWER_LIMIT parameter.
B. Set the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute to a lower value.
C. Specify the statement that adds the disk back to the disk group.
D. Increase the number of ASMB processes.
E. Increase the number of DBWR_IO_SLAVES in the ASM instance.

Correct Answer: AD

A: ASM_POWER_LIMIT specifies the maximum power on an Automatic Storage Management instance for disk rebalancing. The higher the limit, the faster rebalancing will complete. Lower values will take longer, but consume fewer processing and I/O resources.
D:
*Normally a separate process is fired up to do that rebalance. This will take a certain amount of time. If you want it to happen faster, fire up moreprocesses. You tell ASM it can add more processes by increasing the rebalance power.
*ASMB
ASM Background Process
Communicates with the ASM instance, managing storage and providing statistics Incorrect:
Not B: A higher, not a lower, value of DISK_REPAIR_TIME would be helpful here.
Not E: If you implement database writer I/O slaves by setting the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter, you configure a single (master) DBWR process that has slave processes that are subservient to it. In addition, I/O slaves can be used to “simulate” asynchronous I/O on platforms that do not support asynchronous I/O or implement it inefficiently. Database I/O slaves provide non-blocking, asynchronous requests to simulate asynchronous I/O.

QUESTION 87:

You are administering a database and you receive a requirement to apply the following restrictions:
1.A connection must be terminated after four unsuccessful login attempts by user.
2.A user should not be able to create more than four simultaneous sessions. 3.User session must be terminated after 15 minutes of inactivity.
4.Users must be prompted to change their passwords every 15 days. How would you accomplish these requirements?

A. by granting a secure application role to the users
B. by creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to FALSE
C. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter to 4
D. By Implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) and setting the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE parameter to NONE.
E. By implementing the database resource Manager plan and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameters to 4.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
You can design your applications to automatically grant a role to the user who is trying to log in, provided the user meets criteria that you specify. To do so, you create a secure application role, which is a role that is associated with a PL/SQL procedure (or PL/SQL package that contains multiple procedures). The procedure validates the user: if the user fails the validation, then the user cannot log in. If the user passes the validation, then the procedure grants the user a role so that he or she can use the application. The user has this role only as long as he or she is logged in to the application.
When the user logs out, the role is revoked. Incorrect:
Not B: REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT specifies whether remote clients will be authenticated with the value of the OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX parameter. Not C, not E:

SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS specifies the number of authentication attempts that can be made by a client on a connection to the server process. After the specified number of failure attempts, the connection will be automatically dropped by the server process.
Not D: REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE specifies whether Oracle checks for a password file. Values: shared
One or more databases can use the password file. The password file can contain SYS as well as non-SYS users. exclusive
The password file can be used by only one database. The password file can contain SYS as well as non-SYS users. none
Oracle ignores any password file. Therefore, privileged users must be authenticated by the operating system. Note:
The REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter is deprecated. It is retained for backward compatibility only.

QUESTION 88:

A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:
SQL> ALTER TABLE subscribe log STORAGE (BUFFER_POOL recycle);
You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing one million rows. What could be a reason for this recommendation?

A. The keep pool is not configured.
B. Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C. Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The most of the rows in SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are accessed once a week.

QUESTION 89:

Which three tasks can be automatically performed by the Automatic Data Optimization feature of Information lifecycle Management (ILM)?

A. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
C. Tracking insert time by row for table rows
D. Tracking the most recent write time for a table block
E. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace
F. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
Incorrect:
Not E, Not F When Heat Map is enabled, all accesses are tracked by the in-memory activity tracking module. Objects in the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces are not tracked.
*To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and modification.
Heat Map provides data access tracking at the segment-level and data modification tracking at the segment and row level.
*To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and modification. You can also use Automatic DataOptimization (ADO) to automate the compression and movement of data between different tiers of storage within the database.

QUESTION 90:

Which two partitioned table maintenance operations support asynchronous Global Index Maintenance in Oracle database 12c?

A. ALTER TABLE SPLIT PARTITION
B. ALTER TABLE MERGE PARTITION
C. ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION
D. ALTER TABLE ADD PARTITION
E. ALTER TABLE DROP PARTITION
F. ALTER TABLE MOVE PARTITION

Correct Answer: CE

Explanation/Reference:
Asynchronous Global Index Maintenance for DROP and TRUNCATE PARTITION
This feature enables global index maintenance to be delayed and decoupled from a DROP and TRUNCATE partition without making a global index unusable. Enhancements include faster DROP and TRUNCATE partition operations and the ability to delay index maintenance to off-peak time.

QUESTION 91:

You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection?

A. User session data
B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information, including stuff like package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that, with shared server, the UGA is in the SGA. It has to be, because shared server means that the session state needs to be accessible to all server processes, as any one of them could be assigned a particular session. However, with dedicated server (which likely what you’re using), the UGA is allocated in the PGA.
C: The Location of a private SQL area depends on the type of connection established for a session. If a session is connected through a dedicated server, private SQL areas are located in the server process’ PGA. However, if a session is connected through a shared server, part of the private SQL area is kept in the SGA. Note:
*System global area (SGA)
The SGA is a group of shared memory structures, known as SGA components, that contain data and control information for one Oracle Database instance. The SGA is shared by all server and background processes. Examples of data stored in the SGA include cached data blocks and shared SQL areas.
*Program global area (PGA)
A PGA is a memory region that contains data and control information for a server process. It is nonshared memory created by Oracle Database when a server process is started. Access to the PGA is exclusive to the server process. There is one PGA for each server process. Background processes also allocate their own PGAs. The total memory used by all individual PGAs is known as the total instance PGA memory, and the collection of individual PGAs is referred to as the total instance PGA, or just instance PGA. You use database initialization parameters to set the size of the instance PGA, not individual PGAs.

QUESTION 92:

Which two statements are true about Oracle Managed Files (OMF)?

A. OMF cannot be used in a database that already has data files created with user-specified directions.
B. The file system directions that are specified by OMF parameters are created automatically.
C. OMF can be used with ASM disk groups, as well as with raw devices, for better file management.
D. OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E. OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.

Correct Answer: DE

Explanation/Reference:
D: The database internally uses standard file system interfaces to create and delete files as needed for the following database structures:

Tablespaces
Redo log files Control files Archived logs
Block change tracking files Flashback logs RMAN backups Note:
* Using Oracle-managed files simplifies the administration of an Oracle Database. Oracle-managed files eliminate the need for you, the DBA, to directly manage the operating system files that make up an Oracle Database. With Oracle-managed files, you specify file system directories in which the database automatically creates, names, and manages files at the database object level. For example, you need only specify that you want to create a tablespace; you do not need to specify the name and path of the tablespace’s datafile with the DATAFILE clause.
http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/9i/oracle-managed-files.php http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10500_01/server.920/a96521/omf.htm

QUESTION 93:

Which four actions are possible during an Online Data file Move operation?

A. Creating and dropping tables in the data file being moved
B. Performing file shrink of the data file being moved
C. Querying tables in the data file being moved
D. Performing Block Media Recovery for a data block in the data file being moved
E. Flashing back the database
F. Executing DML statements on objects stored in the data file being moved

Correct Answer: ACEF

Explanation/Reference:
-You can now move On line Datafile without hove to stop Monoged Recovery and manually copy and rename Files. This can even be used to moveDatafiles from or to ASM.
-New in Oracle Database 12c: FROM METAUNK. Physical Standby Database is in Active Data Guard Mode (opened READ ONLY and ManagedRecovery is running):
It is now possible to online move a Datafile while Managed Recovery is running, ie. the Physical Standby Database is in Active Data Guard Mode. You con use this Command to move the Datafile
-A flashback operation does not relocate a moved data file to its previous location. If you move a data file online from one location to another and laterflash back the database to a point in time before the move, then the Data file remains in the new location, but the contents of the Data file ore changed to the contents at the time specified in the flashback. Oracle0 Database Administrator’s Guide 12c Release 1 (12.1)

QUESTION 94:

Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The default permanent tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container database (CDB) is open and you connect RMAN.
You want to issue the following RMAN command:

RMAN > BACKUP TABLESPACE hr_pdb:userdata;
Which task should you perform before issuing the command?

A. Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.
B. Take the user data tablespace offline.
C. Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D. Ensure that HR_PDB is open.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 95:

Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze impact on the performance of SQL statements.

A. Change in the Oracle Database version
B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade

Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation/Reference:
Oracle 11g/12c makes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which compares the performance of the statements in a tuning set before and after a database change. The database change can be as major or minor as you like, such as:
*(E) Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.
*(A,C) Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
*Database initialization parameter changes.
*Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
*Refreshing optimizer statistics.
*Creating or changing SQL profiles.

QUESTION 96:

Which two statements are true about the RMAN validate database command?

A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.
B. It can detect corrupt pfiles.
C. It can detect corrupt spfiles.
D. It checks the database for interblock corruptions.
E. It can detect corrupt block change tracking files.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
Block corruptions can be divided Into Interblock corruption and intrablock corruption. In intrablock corruption. th« corruption occurs within the block itself and can be either physical or logical corruption. In interblock corruption, the corruption occurs between blocks and can only be logical corruption. (key word) * The VALIDATE command checks for intrablock corruptions only. Only DBVERIFY and the ANALYZE statement detect Interblock corruption.
VALIDATE Command Output ••> List of Control File and SPFILE. File TYPE >»» SPFILE or Control File.
Status >»» OK if no corruption, or FAILED If block corruption is found. Blocks Failing »»» The number of blocks that fail the corruption check. These blocks are newly corrupt.
Blocks Examined »»» Total number of blocks in the file. Oracle’ Database Backup and Recovery User’s Guide
12c Release 1 (12.1) – 16 Validating Database Files and Backups

QUESTION 97:

You install a non-RAC Oracle Database. During Installation, the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) prompts you to enter the path of the Inventory directory and also to specify an operating system group name.
Which statement is true?

A. The ORACLE_BASE base parameter is not set.
B. The installation is being performed by the root user.
C. The operating system group that is specified should have the root user as its member.
D. The operating system group that is specified must have permission to write to the inventory directory.

Correct Answer: D

Note:
Providing a UNIX Group Name
If you are installing a product on a UNIX system, the Installer will also prompt you to provide the name of the group which should own the base directory. You must choose a UNIX group name which will have permissions to update, install, and deinstall Oracle software. Members of this group must have write permissions to the base directory chosen.
Only users who belong to this group are able to install or deinstall software on this machine.

QUESTION 98:

You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database as a pluggable database (PDB) to a multitenant container database (CDB). The following are the possible steps to accomplish this task:
1.Place all the user-defined tablespace in read-only mode on the source database. 2.Upgrade the source database to a 12c version.
3. Create a new PDB in the target container database.
4. Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the VERSION parameter set to 12 using the expdp utility. 5.Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target database.
6. Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role and specify the fulltransportable import options.
7. Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB function. Identify the correct order of the required steps.

A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
E. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
1. Set user tablespaces in the source database to READ ONLY.
2. From the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 {11.2.0.3) environment, export the metadata and any data residing in administrative tablespaces from thesource database using the FULL=Y and TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS parameters. Note that the VER$ION=12 parameter is required only when exporting from an Oracle Database llg Release 2 database:
3. Copy the tablespace data files from the source system to the destination system. Note that the log file from the export operation will list the data filesrequired to be moved.
4. Create a COB on the destination system, including a PDB into which you will import the source database.
5. In the Oracle Database 12c environment, connect to the pre-created PDB and import the dump file. The act of importing the dump file will plug thetablespace data files into the destination PDB
Oracle White Paper – Upgrading to Oracle Database 12c -August 2013

QUESTION 99:

In your multitenant container database (CDB) with two pluggable database (PDBs). You want to create a new PDB by using SQL Developer. Which statement is true?

A. The CDB must be open.
B. The CDB must be in the mount stage.
C. The CDB must be in the nomount stage.
D. Alt existing PDBs must be closed.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation. The size of the seed PDB is only about 1 gigabyte and it takes only a few seconds on a typical machine to copy it.

QUESTION 100:

Which two statements are true about the Oracle Direct Network File system (DNFS)?

A. It utilizes the OS file system cache.
B. A traditional NFS mount is not required when using Direct NFS.
C. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
D. Direct NFS is available only in UNIX platforms.
E. Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.

Correct Answer: CE

Explanation/Reference:
E: Performance is improved by load balancing across multiple network interfaces (if available). Note:
*To enable Direct NFS Client, you must replace the standard Oracle Disk Manager (ODM) library with one that supports Direct NFS Client.

Incorrect:
Not A: Direct NFS Client is capable of performing concurrent direct I/O, which bypasses any operating system level caches and eliminates any operating system write-ordering locks Not B:
*To use Direct NFS Client, the NFS file systems must first be mounted and available over regular NFS mounts.
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more scalable access to NFS storage located onNAS storage devices (accessible over TCP/IP).
Not D: Direct NFS is provided as part of the database kernel, and is thus available on all supported database platforms – even those that don’t support NFS natively, like Windows.
Note:
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more scalable access to NFS storage located onNAS storage devices (accessible over TCP/IP). Direct NFS is built directly into the database kernel – just like ASM which is mainly used when using DAS or SAN storage.
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an internal I/O layer that provides faster access to large NFS files than traditional NFS clients.

QUESTION 101:

Examine the parameters for your database instance:

Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using cardinality feedback?

A. The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is a huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution statistics.
B. The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
C. The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D. The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are enabled.
E. After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the collectors are submitted to the optimizer.

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation/Reference:
C: During the first execution of a SQL statement, an execution plan is generated as usual.
D: if multi-column statistics are not present for the relevant combination of columns, the optimizer can fall back on cardinality feedback. (not B)* Cardinality feedback. This feature, enabled by default in 11.2, is intended to improve plans for repeated executions. optimizer_dynamic_sampling optimizer_features_enable
*dynamic sampling or multi-column statistics allow the optimizer to more accurately estimate selectivity of conjunctive predicates. Note:
*OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls the level of dynamic sampling performed by the optimizer. Range of values. 0 to 10
*Cardinality feedback was introduced in Oracle Database 11gR2. The purpose of this feature is to automatically improve plans for queries that areexecuted repeatedly, for which the optimizer does not estimate cardinalities in the plan properly. The optimizer may misestimate cardinalities for a variety of reasons, such as missing or inaccurate statistics, or complex predicates. Whatever the reason for the misestimate, cardinality feedback may be able to help.

QUESTION 102:

Which three statements are true when the listener handles connection requests to an Oracle 12c database instance with multithreaded architecture enabled In UNIX?

A. Thread creation must be routed through a dispatcher process
B. The local listener may spawn a now process and have that new process create a thread
C. Each Oracle process runs an SCMN thread.
D. Each multithreaded Oracle process has an SCMN thread.
E. The local listener may pass the request to an existing process which in turn will create a thread.

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 103:

Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle?

A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table
B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
C. Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D. Move partitions of a range-partitioned table
E. Rename partitions of a range partitioned table
F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index

Correct Answer: ABF
Multipartition maintenance enables adding, dropping, truncate, merge, split operations on multiple partitions. A: Merge Multiple Partitions:
The new “ALTER TABLE … MERGE PARTITIONS ” help merge multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement. When merging multiple partitions, local and global index operations and semantics for inheritance of unspecified physical attributes are the same for merging two partitions.
B: Drop Multiple Partitions:
The new “ALTER TABLE … DROP PARTITIONS ” help drop multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement. Example:
view plaincopy to clipboardprint?
SQL> ALTER TABLE Tab_tst1 DROP PARTITIONS
Tab_tst1_PART5, Tab_tst1_PART6, Tab_tst1_PART7; Table altered
SQL>
Restrictions :
-You can’t drop all partitions of the table.
-If the table has a single partition, you will get the error: ORA-14083: cannot drop the only partition of a partitioned.

QUESTION 104:

You are connected using SQL* Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges and execute the following sequence statements:

What is the result of the last SET CONTAINER statement and why is it so?
A. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user has the required privileges.
B. It fails because common users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
C. It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
D. If fails because the SET CONTAINER statement cannot be used with PDB$SEED as the target pluggable database (PDB).

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 105:

Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR) report:

What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?
A. The size of the shared pool is too small.
B. Cursors are not being shared.
C. A large number COMMITS are being performed.
D. There are frequent logons and logoffs.
E. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 106:

You enabled an audit policy by issuing the following statements: SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SCOTT;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SYS, SYSTEM;
For which database users and for which executions is the audit policy now active? Select two.
A. SYS, SYSTEM
B. SCOTT
C. Only for successful executions
D. Only for failed executions
E. Both successful and failed executions

Correct Answer: AE

Explanation/Reference:
* The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default, this policy is not enabled.

QUESTION 107:

A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:

All users have their default set of system privileges. For which three situations will data not be redacted?

A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E. SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F. SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session

Correct Answer: ADF